UPSC Civil Services IAS 2018 Prelims Answer Key 2018-06-03T17:34:59+00:00

UPSC IAS Prelims 2018 Answer Key

Click here to download IAS Prelims 2018 Answer key in PDF format

Q1.With reference to the Indian regional navigation satellite system (IRNSS) consider the following statements:

  1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
  2. IRNSS covers entire Indi and about 5500sq. Km beyond its borders
  3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by middle of 2019

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. None

Q2. Consider the following phenomena:

  1. Lights is affected by gravity
  2. The universe is constantly expanding
  3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time

Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s general theory of relativity, often discussed in media?

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q3. With reference to the genetically modified mustard(GM mustard) developed in India, Consider the following statements:

  1. GM mustard has the ganes of a soilbacterium that give plant the property of pest-resitance to a wide variety of pests.
  2. GM mustard has the games that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization
  3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the Iari AND PUNJAB Agricultural University

Which of the statements given above is /are correct ?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q4. Consider the following pairs:

Terms sometime   seen in news                                     context/topic

1 BELLE – Artificial

Experiment                  Intelligence

  1. Block chain – Digital/Cryptocurrency
  2. CRISPR- CAS9

Particle physics

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q5.       Which of the following statements best describes ‘’carbon fertilization ‘’?

  1. Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
  2. Increased temperature of earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
  3. Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
  4. Adaptation of all living beings on earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Q6.       When the alarm of your Smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast , it recognizes the shortage of stock in it and places an order for supply of fresh grocery items. When yoyu step out of your house and lock the door, all lights ,fans ,geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically . On your way to office ,your car warns you about traffic congestion ahed and suggests an alternative route , and if you are late for a meeting,it sends a message to your office accordingly .

In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?

  1. Border Gateway Protocol
  2. Internet of Things
  3. Internet Protocol
  4. Virtual private network

Q7.       With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements :

  1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units
  2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the solar energy corporation of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q8.       The staple commodities of export by the English East India company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were 

  1. Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
  2. Sugar, salt,zine and lead
  3. Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
  4. Cotton, silk , saltpeter and opium

Q9.       Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran satyagraha?

  1. Active all-India participation of lawyers students and women in the National Movement
  2. Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National movement
  3. Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
  4. Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

Q10.   Who among the following were the founders of the ‘’Hind Mazdoor Sabha’’ established in 1948?

  1. B.Krishna pillai,E.M.S Naboodiripad and K.C George
  2. Jayaprakash Naryan , Deen Dayal upadhyay and M.N Roy
  3. C.P Ramaswamy Iyer,K.Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
  4. Ashok Mehta ,T.S Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

Q11.   With reference to the religious practices in the India, the ‘’Sthanakvasi’’ sect belongs to 

  1. Buddhism
  2. Jainism
  3. Vaishnavism
  4. Shaivism

Q12.   With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements :

  1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and khankah at Fathepur sikri
  2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at lucknow

Which of he statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q13.   Which one of the following foreign travelers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India ?

  1. Francois Barnier
  2. Jean –Batiste Tavernier 
  3. Jean de Thevenot
  4. Abbe barthelemy carre

Q14.   With reference to India history , who among the following is a future Buddha , yet to come to save the world ?

  1. Avalokiteshvara
  2. Lokesvara
  3. Maitreya
  4. Padmapani

Q15.   Which one of the following statemenst does not apply to the system of subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellsley?

  1. To maintain a large standing army at other’s expense
  2. To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
  3. To secure a fixed income for the company
  4. To establish British paramountcy  over the Indian states

Q16.   Consider the following statements:

  1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatanta party
  2. In the Lok Sabha, a ‘’Leader of the Opposition ‘’was recognized for the first time in 1969
  3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have minimum of 75 members , its leader cannot be recognized as the leader of the opposition

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. 1 and 3only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q17.   Which of the following leaf modifications occurs(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

  1. Hard and Waxy leaves
  2. Tiny leaves
  3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q18.   As per the NSSO 70TH  Round ‘’situation assessment survey of Agricultural Households’’, consider the following statement:

  1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households
  2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs
  3. In Kerla , a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q19.   How is the national Green Tribunal (NGT) dIfferent from the centRal pollution control board (CPCB)?

  1. The NGT has been established by an ACT where the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government
  2. The NGT provide environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)    1 only

(b)   2 only 

(c)    Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

Q20.   Consider the following statements:

  1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the constitution of India.
  2. The validity of a law places in the Ninth Schedule Cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)    1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)    Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

Q21.   Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news?

(a)    The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.

(b)   The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.

(c)    The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.

(d)   The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

Q22.   What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers group’ ?

  1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
  2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)    1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)    Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

Q23.   With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is introduces as a part of the Income Tax Act.
  2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)    1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)    Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

Q24.   Consider the following statements:

  1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central government and 20% for the State Government .
  2. The central Government  has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the state Governments.
  3. As per the consititution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s Consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)    1 only

(b)   2 and 3only

(c)    1 and 3 only

(d)   1 , 2 and 3

Q25.   Consider the following statements:

  1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
  2. The government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)    1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)    Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

Q26.   He wrote biographies of Mazzani, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; And was also elected to the Central Assemble. He was

(a)    Aurobindo ghosh

(b)   Bipin Chandra Pal

(c)    Lala Lajpat Rai

(d)   Motilal Nehru

Q27.   Consider the following statements:

  1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
  2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)    1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)    Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2 

Q28. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?

  1. Aral sea
  2. Black sea
  3. Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • 1 only
  • 2 and 3
  • 2 only
  • 1 and 3

Q29. “Rule of Law Index” is relaxed by which of the following?

(a) Amnesty International

(b) International Court of Justice

(c) The office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights

(d) World Justice Project

Q30. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

(a) Indian Banks Association

(b) National Securities Depository Limited

(c) National Payments Corporation of India

(d) reserve Bank of India

Q31. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

(a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases

(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlements of his claims

(c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.

(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country

Q32. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government , then

(a) the opportunity cost is zero.

(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.

(c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.

(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

Q33. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

(a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.

(b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.

(c) Poverty and unemployment increases.

(d) Imports grow faster than exports

Q34. Consider the following statements:

Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

  1. Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
  2. Increasing the knowledge, skills levels and capacities of the people of the country.
  3. Accumulation of tangible wealth.
  4. Accumulation of intangible wealth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • 1 and 2
  • 2 only
  • 2 and 4
  • 1, 3 and 4

Q35. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

(a) weak administrative machinery

(b) illiteracy

(c) high population density

(d) high capital output ratio

Q36. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?

  1. The territories called ‘santhal paraganas’ were created.
  2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • 1 only
  • 2 only
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2

Q37. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the

(a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts

(b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories

(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture

(d) rapid increase in the urban population

Q38. IF the President of India exercise his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.

(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

Q39. Consider the following pairs:

Crafts                    heritage of

  1. Puthukkuli shawls — Tamil Nadu
  2. Sujni embroidery — Maharashtra
  3. Uppada JAmdani Saris — Karnataka

Which of the pairs above is/are correct?

  • 1 only
  • 1 and 2
  • 3 only
  • 2 and 3

Q40. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?

  1. Mobile phone operations
  2. Banking operations
  3. Controlling the power grids

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • 1 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Q41. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
  2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
  3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • 1 and 2 only
  • 3 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Q42. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
  2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
  3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • 1 only
  • 2 and 3only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Q43. The terms ‘WannaCry , Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

(a) Exoplanets

(b) cryptocurrency

(c) cyber attacks

(d) Mini satellites

Q44. with reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

  1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
  2. Adopting minimum tillage
  3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
  4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
  5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • 1, 3 and 4
  • 2, 3 ,4 and 5
  • 2, 4 and 5
  • 1,2, 3 and 5

Q45. The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.

(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.

(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.

(d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

Q46. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education of India?

  1. Charter Act of 1813
  2. General Committee of Public Instruction 1823
  3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • 1 and 2 only
  • 2 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Q47. Which one the following is an artificial lake?

(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)

(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

Q48. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, Consider the following statements:

  1. IT is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
  2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
  3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • 1 and 3 only
  • 2 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Q49. In 1920, Which of the following changes its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?

(a) All India Home Rule League

(b) Hindu Mahasabha

(c) South Indian Liberal Federation

(d) The servants of India Society

Q50. Which among the following events happened earliest?

(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.

(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.

(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.

(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.

Q51. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

  1. Decreased Salinity in the river
  2. Pollution of groundwater
  3. Lowering of the water-table

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • 1 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 4

Q52. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:

  1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically redues its water holding capacity.
  2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle
  3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • 1 and 2 only
  • 3 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Q53. The partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) , a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg

(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio De Janeiro

(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on climate Change 2015, Paris

(d) The world sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

Q54. “3D printing” has applications in which the following?

  1. Preparation of confectionery items
  2. Manufacture of bionic ears
  3. Automotive industry
  4. Reconstructive surgeries
  5. Data processing technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • 1 , 3 and 4 only
  • 2, 3 and 5 only
  • 1 and 4 only
  • 1, 2, 3,4 and 5

Q55. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
  2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
  3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remains inactive since then.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • 1 only
  • 2 and 3
  • 3 only
  • 1 and 3

Q56. Why is a plant called prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

(a) Its exactly is widely used in cosmetics.

(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.

(d) None of the above

Q57. Consider the following statements:

  1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
  2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
  3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • 1 and 2 only
  • 3 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Q58. “Momentum for change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

a)The intergovernmental panel on climate change
b) The UNEP Secretariat
c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
d) The World Meteorological Organization

Q59. With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:

Institution               founder

  1. Sanskrit college at Benaras William jones
  2. Calcutta Madarsa Warren Hastings
  3. Fort William College Arthur Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is /are correct?

  1. 1and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Q60. Consider the following pairs:

Regions sometimes mentioned in news      Country

  1. Catalonia Spain
  2. Crimea Hungary
  3. Mindanao Philippines
  4. Oromia Nigeria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. 1,2 and 3
  2. 3 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 4 only

Q61. Consider the following statements”

  1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account –holders fail to repay dues.
  2. CAR is decided b each individual bank

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q62. The identify platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces(APIs)”.

What does it imply?

  1. It can be integrated into any electronic device
  2. Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q63. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from serve famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

  1. a) Angola and Zambia
  2. b) Morocco and Tunisia
  3. c) Venezuela and Colombia
  4. d) Yemen and South Sudan

Q64. Regarding wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?

  1. Grants –in-aid System was introduced.
  2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
  3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q65. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations ,rules, sub-rules, by laws , etc. conferred by the constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

  1. a) Committee on Government Assurances
  2. b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
  3. c) Rules Committee
  4. d) Business Advisory Committee

Q66. Consider the following statements:

  1. As per the right to Education (RTE) Act ,to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of teacher Education.
  2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
  3. In India, More than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the following given is /are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Q67. Consider the following pairs:

Tradition      State

1.Chapchar Kut Festival   Mizoram

  1. Khongjom Parba Ballad Manipur

3.Thang-ta dance          Sikkim

Which of the pairs given is /are correct?

  1. 1only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3

Q68. Consider the following statements:

  1. The food Safety and Standard Act,2006 replaced the prevention of Food Adulteration Act,1954.
  2. The food Safety and Standard Authority of India(FSSAI) is under the charge of director General of Health and family Welfare.

Which of the following given is /are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither nor 2

Q69. The term “two state solution “is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

  1. a) China
  2. b) Israel
  3. c) Iraq
  4. d) Yemen

Q70.With reference to the provisions made under the National food Security Act 2013, consider the following statements:

  1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
  2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 1 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
  3. Pregnant woman and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘Take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and six months thereafter.

Which of the following given is /are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Q71. India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods(Registration and Protection) Act 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

  1. a) ILO

b)IMF

  1. c) UNCTAD
  2. d) WTO

Q72. Consider the following

  1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.

2.Andra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.

  1. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the following given is /are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Q73. With Reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

  1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
  2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication , BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the following given is /are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither nor 2

Q74. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

  1. a) Bengaluru
  2. b) Hyderabad
  3. c) Nagpur
  4. d) Pune

Q75. International labour Organization’s Convention 138 and 182 are related to

  1. a) Child Labour
  2. b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
  3. c) Regulation of food prices and food security
  4. Consider the following events:
  5. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a state in India.

2.India’s then largest bank ,’Imperial Bank of India’ , was renamed ‘State Bank Of India’.

  1. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
  2. Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

  1. a) 4-1-2-3
  2. b) 3-2-1-4
  3. c) 4-2-1-3
  4. d) 3-1-2-4
  5. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.

Which of the following in the constitution of India correct and appropriately imply the above statement?

  1. Article 14 and the provisions under the 42Nd Amendment to the constitution
  2. Article 17 and the directive principles of state Policy in Part-IV
  3. Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
  4. Article 21 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the constitution
  5. Consider the following
  6. Arecea nut
  7. Barley
  8. Coffee
  9. Finger Millet
  10. Groundnut
  11. Seasame
  12. Turmeric

The cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the minimum Support Price for which of the above?

  1. a) 1,2,3 and 7 only
  2. b) 2,4,5 and 6 only
  3. c) 1,3,4,5 and 6 only
  4. d) 1,2,3,4,5,6 and 7
  1. In which one of the following states is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
  2. a) Arunachal Pradesh
  3. b) Manipur
  4. c) Meghalaya
  5. d) Nagaland
  6. With reference to india’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

1.PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.

  1. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.

3.GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the following above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 3 only
  5. With Reference to the Governance of public sector banking in India, Consider the following statements:
  6. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

2.To put the Public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.

Which of the following above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q82. Consider the following items:


  1. Cereal Grains hulled.
  2. Chicken Eggs cooked
  3. Fish processed and canned.

4, Newspaper containing advertising material.

Which above the following is exempted under GST?

(a) 1 only


(b) 2 and 3 only.

(c) 1,2 and 4 only.

(d) 1,2,3 and 4.

Q83. Consider the following statements:

  1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
  2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
  3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides the declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal groups in any part of India.

Which of the following statements given above is correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only.


(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Q84. Consider the following:


  1. Birds
  2. Dust blowing
  3. Rain
  4. Wind Blowing

Which of the following spread plant diseases?

  • 1 and 3 only
  • 3 and 4 only
  • 1,2 and 4 only
  • 1,2,3 and 4.

Q85: With Reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The “National programme for organic production” is operated under the guidelines and directions of Union Ministry of Rural Development.

2.The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.

  1. Sikkim has become India’s first Fully organic state.

Which of the following statemtns is correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Q86. Regarding Money bill, which of the following is not correct?

  • A bill shall be deemed to be aMoney bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
  • A money bill has provisions for the custody of Contingency Fund of India.
  • 
A money bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.

  • A money bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

Q87. With reference to election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
  2. The value of the vote of MPs of Lok Sabha ismore than the value of vote of MPs of Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

  • 1 only
  • 
2 only
  • 
Both 1 and 2
  • 
Neither 1 or 2





 

Q88. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the “Additional Protocol” with the “International Atomic Energy Agency(IAEA)” ?

  • The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAWA safeguards.
  • 
The military nuclear installations come under inspection of IAEA.
  • 
The country will have the privelege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
  • The country automatically becomes a member ofNSG.

Q89. Consider the following countries:

  1. Australia
  2. Canada
  3. China
  4. India
  5. Japan
  6. USA

Which of the following are “free trade partners” of ASEAN?

(a) 1,2, 4 and 5.

(b) 3,4,5 and 6


(c) 1,3,4 and 5

(d) 2,3,4 and 6

Q90. With reference to the “Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture”, which of the following statements are correct?

  1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
  2. Membership of GACSA des not create any binding obligations.
  3. India was instrumental in creating GACSA.

(a) 1 and 3 only


(b) 2 only


(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Q91. Which of the following are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” plan of the Government of India?

  1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
  2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
  3. Connect many of our villages to Internet and bring WiFI to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.

Select the correct code:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3.

Q92. Consider the following pairs:

Towns mentioned in the News:                                                                                  Country:

  1. Aleppo Syria
  2. Kirkuk Yemen

3. Mosul                  Pakistan

4. Mazar-i-sharif       Afghanistan

Which of the following are correctly matches?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4


(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Q93. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, resuduary powers were given to the:

  • Federal Legislature
  • Governor General

  • Provincial Legislature
  • 
Provisional Governors.

Q94. Consider the following statements:

  1. The speaker of the legislative assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/sheceases to be a member of the assembly.
  2. Whenever the Legislative Assebly is dissolved, the speaker shall vacate his/her office immedeately.

Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) 1 only


(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q95. Which of the following represents the most appropriate relationship between Law and Liberty?

(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.


(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by people.

(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Q96. Consider the following statements:

  1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the governor of a state in any court during the term of office.
  2. The emoulments and allowances of governor of state shall not be dimnished during his term of office.

Which of the following are correct?

  • 1 only
  • 
2 only
  • Both 1 and 2
  • 
Neither 1 nor 2

Q97. The well known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to:

(a) Bundi School

(b) Jaipur School

(c) Kangra School


(d) Kishangarh School

Q98. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)” sometimes seen in the news?

(a) An Israeli radar system

(b) India’s indigenous Anti Missilie program.

(c) An American Anti Missile system


(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

Q99. With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
  2. Tyagaraja created several new Ragas.
  3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
  4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Ventakteshrware.

Which of the followig statements are correct:

  • 1 and 3 only
  • 
2 and 4 only

  • 1,2 and 3
  • 2,3 and 4.

Q100. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of “Rule of Law”?

  1. Limitation of powers.
  2. Equality before low.
  3. People’s responsibility to the government
  4. Liberty of Civil Rights.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only


(c) 1,2, and 4 only


(d) 1,2,3 and 4.

 

 

Click here to download IAS Prelims 2018 Answer key in PDF format

Contact Info

#1110, Sector 11, Chandigarh

Phone: 70870-00447

Mobile: 98147-11661